Subj: Letter 2 editor
Date: 98-04-09 13:48:16 EDT
Yesterday's American had a large section bought by a church on the coast. In it their pastor gave a little instruction about the paganism of Easter. It was fine.
However, he got on the Alexandrian band wagon of correcting the KJB at Acts 12:4. So I e-mailed the following to the American and the Mobile (Ala) Press Register.
Redeeming the time, because the days are evil,
Every year at Easter season, we get messages claiming that the word "Easter" was erroneously placed in the King James Version. It comes from the Greek word, "pascha," and is everywhere translated "Passover" -- except in Acts 12:4 where we are given the word "Easter." So it is concluded that the KJV translators slipped in a little of their opinions into their translation. This is now supported with the modern, "more reliable" versions translating the word as "passover," in that passage.
However, verse three tells us that these events took place during the days of Unleavened Bread. The Feast of Unleavened Bread always follows Passover as God instructed in Exodus 12. Furthermore Herod, not a blip, would not be giving credence to the blipish holy day. It is clear that he was waiting for the passing of Easter, the pagan celebration of Ashtarte.
Lastly, to this day, the Greek word for "Easter" is "pascha." The King James is exactly correct, those who would correct it have erred, and the "more reliable" versions are wrong.
Here's a note for your web site.
With endless clap worn out rhetoric, the followers of Alexandrian, Wescott and Hort mentality continue to bash God's Preserved Word as found in the AV1611.
At this time of the year, when eyes are focused on Easter, the men who know more about how God's Word "should have been" translated than God Himself blast away at the occurrence of the word "Easter in Acts 12:4. They point out how that all the other incidences of the word "pascha" is translated "Passover," yet here, "those poor translators slipped in a bit of their own paganism with the word 'Easter.' How tragic. And take note KJV boys, here's 'proof' that the KJV is tainted."
BE YE INFORMED. Since you have spent all your lives running from the "blipish" festivals, you are ignorant of them and the Word of God's teaching on the matter. Verse three of Acts twelve, tells us that this occurred during the days of Unleavened Bread. The Feast of Unleavened Bread FOLLOWS Passover. Now dear Bible corrector, why would the pagan Herod be waiting for a blipish holy day to pass? According to Acts 12:3, Passover that year was history and the ONLY thing that Herod could have been waiting for was Easter.
PS. If you'll ask any Greek, to this day the word for Easter is -- Pascha! Your ignorance is surpassed only by your hatred for the final authority of the KJB and your love for scholarship (so called).
Editor: Balaam's Ass Speaks-- Steve Van Nattan-- The Feast
of Unleavened Bread came AFTER Passover. If Herod waited until after Easter
as interpreted by arrogant Bible mutilators who claim that Easter is Pascha,
or Passover, then he would have had to wait another 366 days to kill Peter.
That is the way it works for these PhDs (piled higher and deeper) in your
local Seminary. Real smart are they not?